Does a mid-1930's D-28 have less bass response than an early 2020's non-VTS D-28 A?

[@lagatrix]

Recently, in a post on one of the most popular zombie topics on the forum—of whether and how "guitars open up"—there were several no doubt knowledgeable enthusiasts claiming a central tonal change of guitars over time is a loss of bass response. I haven't spent enough time in my life focused on guitars to have a strong opinion on something like this, which likely would come, if at all, with time and experience.

But I'm curious: if this loss of bass response is real, then theoretically it would be most apparent in the oldest examples of a particular model. And if a non-relic'd, non-torrefied Authentic 28 is built to exactly the same specs as the Golden Era guitar it replicates, then wouldn't this, on average, be a good control to test this hypothesis?

And as Golden Era D-28s are among the most prized guitars (obviously for several other reasons in addition to their celebrated tone) what would this say about their true tonal advantages, if they, on average have a weaker bass response than a contemporary build? Of course bass isn't everything, even in a D-28...

This thought has been stuck in the back of my brain for the last few days, and I just thought I'd let it out to see how AGF would react. Sadly, I'm not in the market for a 100k guitar, so this will remain theoretical for me

Ian